The Harmony of the Son and Father

Regarding the harmony of 'I and the Father are one' (John 10:30). If, therefore, He himself says these things: 'I went forth from the Father and I have come,' and again, 'and the Word, which you hear, is not mine, but belongs to Him who sent me the Father,' and 'all things that the Father has are mine' (John 16:15), it is clear that He was rightly saying even that: 'the Father is in me and I in the Father' (John 16:33), so that the Word, saying this, might be in God, and the Father might be in the Word, because the Word is the power of the Father. For a trustworthy witness has declared Him to be 'the power of God and the wisdom of God.'

The Savior does not say 'I and the Father are one' because of a precise harmony in all words and works, as Asterius said, but because it is impossible to divide the Word of God or God Himself from the Word. Since Asterius thinks the Savior said this because of a harmony in everything, and desires to learn the truth without paying attention to the second economy, it is necessary to remind him how, at times, one sees what appears to be a discord. For such is what the spoken words teach us.

For what kind of harmony is there in the time of the passion when He says this, 'Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me' (Luke 22:42), but then adds that, 'yet not as I will, but as You' (Luke 22:42)? For there was no harmony at first in saying, 'let this cup pass from me'; nor does it seem that there is any agreement in what is being added, for He says, 'not my will, but Yours, Father, let it be done.' You hear how the letter declares a discord, according to appearances, of the one willing and of the one not willing. For the Father clearly willed that which willed happened through the things from which it was clear; but the Son's not willing is made clear through the things by which He renounces it. And again He says, 'I do not seek my own will, but the will of Him who sent me the Father' (John 5:30). How, then, does he say that the Savior said, 'I and the Father are one' because of a harmony in everything?

How can the Son have harmony toward the Father, or the Father toward the Son, when the Son says, 'all things that the Father has are mine' (John 16:15)? For, contrary to the Son encroaching upon the Father, he says, 'all things that the Father has are mine.' For this reason, passing over the fact that all things the Father has are common, he said, 'all things that the Father has are mine.'

Even if it was not proper for the one in agreement to speak in this way, rather: all that the Father has is common. For if the Acts of the Apostles, praising the agreement of those approaching with faith like the ones mentioned, said, "all things were common to them" (Acts 4:32), and one ought to consider all things to be common for men capable of agreeing, how much more ought the Father and the Son to partake in communion, being divided into two hypostases?

But now, in saying, "all that the Father has is mine" (John 16:15), the Son seems to be grasping at the Father's; and in stating that not even his own word is master, but rather the Father of this word (for he says, "the word which you hear is not mine but of Him who sent me, the Father" John 8:28), it shows the Father being deprived of his own things of the Son. Furthermore, according to the opinion of Asterius, the two sides seem not to have spoken in accordance. For the one in agreement ought not to justly snatch away what belongs to the other, for this is grasping, but ought to consider what belongs to each to be common.

So when we look down toward the flesh in a human way, we will not find the Savior having said, "I and the Father are one" (John 10:30), just as Asterius has written. For it was not because of the precise agreement in all words and works, as he himself has written, that the Savior said, "I and the Father are one." For if it were this, he certainly would have said: "I and the Father agree with one another in all things." But now he said, "I and the Father are one."

So if there were any disagreement in those things, and since the Lord must speak the truth, it is fitting to know the Savior precisely, that whenever he says, "I and the Father are one," he says this not looking down toward the man whom he took upon himself, but toward the Word proceeding from the Father. For if any disagreement were thought to exist, this ought to be referred to the weakness of the flesh, which the Word did not have previously when he was taken. But if unity were being spoken of, this seems to differ from the Word. Therefore, not only did he say, "I and the Father are one" appropriately, but also that: "For such a long time I have been with you, Philip, and you say: show me the Father" (John 14:9), it is clear that he said this for those capable of seeing the intelligible things not with these eyes, but with the intellectual ones. For both the Father and his Word exist invisible to the eyes of the flesh. Therefore, not because of the agreement in all things...