Mary's purification and the prophetic wording of the law
Origen is commenting on Leviticus 12:2, the law about a woman who bears a male child, and argues that its wording prophetically safeguards Mary from being thought unclean.
Verse 2: “A woman who, if she is inseminated, bears a male child” (Leviticus 12:2). The phrase “if she is inseminated,” placed before “and bears a male child,” will seem to be redundant. But I am considering whether perhaps it was said for this reason: so that prophetically Mary, having borne a male child not from being inseminated, might not be thought unclean after giving birth to the Savior. Even without the phrase “if she is inseminated” being set down, Mary could be understood not to be unclean, for she was not simply a woman, but a virgin.
Greek
Στίχ. β΄. Γυνὴ ἥτις ἐὰν σπερματισθῇ, καὶ τέκῃ ἄρσεν.
Παρέλκειν δόξει τὸ, ἐὰν σπερματισθῇ, προτασσόμενον τοῦ· καὶ τέκῃ ἄρσεν. Ἀλλʼ ἐφίστημι μήποτε ἵνα προφητικῶς ἡ Μαρία, οὐκ ἐκ τοῦ ἐσπερματίσθαι (17) τεκοῦσα ἄρσεν, μὴ νομισθῇ ἀκάθαρτος εἶναι, γεγεννηκυῖα τὸν Σωτῆρα, εἴρηκεν ὅλον Ἐδύνατο δὲ καὶ μὴ προκειμένου τοῦ, Ἐὰν σπερματισθῇ, νοεῖσθαι μὴ οὖσα ἀκάθαρτος ἡ Μαρία· οὐ γὰρ ἀπλῶς γυνὴ, ἀλλὰ παρθένος.